Nearly one in four Swiss claim to have driven after consuming alcohol. This rate is particularly high in comparison with other European countries, warns the Swiss Accident Prevention Bureau.
Its hard to tell if this is actually concerning, or just drivers being honest. If you have a glass of wine and drive the next morning, you probably have alcohol in your system still, but is that really concerning?
It’s highly unlikely unless something is off about your liver or metabolism. Most people will process a standard serving alcoholic beverage at the rate of 1 drink every 1-2 hours.
Sure, but my point wasn’t the numbers as such, more that “driven after consuming alcohol” is not the same as driving under the influence. They really need to specify how soon after drinking and/or quantity. Maybe it was lost in translation?
I think the vast majority of people would understand the intention of the question and answer accordingly.
Not necessarily. How a question is phrased has a huge impact on how people respond. Its why tests like myer-briggs has the same question phrased differently.
Eg:
- Have you driven while drunk?
- Have you driven after a small drink?
Both a conceptually similar questions, but obviously far fewer people are going to say yes to the first. So if the swiss question was phrased like the later, then it could explain the difference.
I wouldn’t reference myer-briggs, lol, that’s pop-sci pseudoscience. You can’t ask people if they’ve driven drunk, as many people wouldn’t consider themselves drunk at the legal limit for alcohol. Additionally, impairment from alchohol begins at a lower threshold than the limits in many places. So, without any concrete data on BAC at the time of operating the motor vehicle, this really is the best way to ask the question.
I know its popsci, but thats not the point. My point is we dont know how the question was asked, so its not clear what we can assume from it.
